tsuwm: so the conclusion is that the french changed the Italian's L to an R; and then the English took the French version but altered it again (and coincidentally, altered it at the same letter, and changed that letter back to the original L again), while retaining the french pronunciation?

Granted that Faldage's source so claims, but does this seems a bit farfetched, absent a mechanism?

And also granted that (if Faldage's source is correct) my final surmise, in my prior post, was mistaken.