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I fail to see how someone's being described by an existing concept could be considered anachronistic (Harrumph®!)
One might as well say that since the Greeks invented democracy the idea of referring to any present government as being democratic was anachronistic*.
And even if Cæsar's wife predated Plato's exposition of the Platonic Ideal, does that mean that there was no Platonic Ideal of the Platonic Ideal until that point?
*There may be other reasons for not referring to any present govenment as democratic, but that's beside the point.
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