Originally Posted By: Zed
I have had patients who, because of a stroke, have damage to the language areas of the brain. Note the plural - areas. The receptive and expressive language centers are separate although closely linked.


Not only that, but single features of language ability are distributed over two or more areas, are they not? Part of relearning language for some people, requires (or results in) using parts of the brain not previously used for language. Alas, I have no longer my fine books on speech pathology, but you can tell us, Zed?

Originally Posted By: ChrisMcA

First, what about prelinguistic children?
...
Second, what of deaf persons, . . . . There are a few such folks around who have grown to adulthood with no language at all (neither sign language nor spoken langauge). . . .

Third, what of polysemy? . . .

Clearly, language can assist thougth, but it is not thought's equal, nor is it even a necessary condition for the acquisition of thought.


Excellent points, ChrisMcA.

Isn't Helen Keller the example par excellence of a Languageless Thinker?

What came first. What came really, really first?
First feelings (emotions), then thoughts, then language.
"Heart, mind and body."