good question. the following excerpt seems to indicate that this is a singular, or at least rare, occurrence in English.

In its earliest stages English had a fully realized gender system. But in the course of its development from Anglo-Saxon to Modern English, English dispensed altogether with adjectival inflections, eliminated all but a singular/plural distinction in the determiners, and discarded all inflectional differentiation (except the genitive and plural markers) in the noun system. What we have got in place of strict grammatical gender is a noun-gender system that has been variously described as natural, notional, referential, or semantic. That is, the gender of a noun, for purposes of concord, is determined not by its form, or the form of its satellites, but by the sex (or
lack thereof) of its referent.[13]

13. This assertion demands some qualification. First, we do have some noun-gender markers: -ess, -ix, and -erte. Sometimes the -er in widower is cited as a masculine gender marker. Second, I am intentionally omitting from consideration here figurative gender assignment, by far the most revealing and probably the most interesting aspect of gender in English, but one beyond the scope of this essay.

Sexist Grammar Revisited
Elizabeth S. Sklar
College English, Vol. 45, No. 4. (Apr., 1983)

edited to remove other footnote markers

Last edited by tsuwm; 04/02/07 02:11 PM.