In reply to:
I assume you would argue from here, themilum, that every culture or micro-culture understands words differently and, therefore, they should interpret those words for themselves, without regard to the meaning attributed to those words in other cultures [for instance, in other states of the Union, or in other countries].
Would I have that right, themilum?
No, theplutarch, your answer is part of the question.
The question being...
To what degree can words be definite in meaning across
cultural and individual interpretations?
Already we have implicitly agreed that each interpretation of a information unit is unique;
whether interpreted by different cultures or
by different individuals or by the same individual
at all different times.
Have we not?
(I will now private mail Plutarch and beg him to come back and respond to this post because he is the only regular so far who has openly and honestly contributed to this theme without changing the subject to whims and things.)
Edit: Opps! Faldage forgive me. I should not have included you in the group of wanderers.
As most always your remark was terse and addressing a point.
I apologize.
