Musick asserted that:
Language is "never" larger than the individual!

But how can it not be? Can you say that there are no places where language is that you are not?
The language of the individual (at any moment) cannot be greater than the individual(granted by definition,) but surely the language per se is greater than any individual, being, as it is, a thing common to all. Do you see where we may be misunderstanding each other, and can you elaborate on that and your assertion?
Thanks,
mm