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Thanks, tsuwm, for the enlightening citations...knew you'd come through.
So, then according to the Mencken piece, capitilization didn't steady it's course to what it is today, until perhaps the 1930's, having even swung far into a strong non-capitilization movement first? And, that being so recent, can it then be said that the process of English capitalization is still in gestation today (I never though of *grammar as being so fluid...i.e. descriptive grammar)aside from the established convention of the word at the beginning of a sentence? I always surmised grammar to be something more concrete, with, perhaps, consensual scholalry changes from era to era.
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