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#181976 01/23/09 07:51 AM
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I don't know a lot of French, but shouldn't this phrase be pronounced swee zhan-uhr-ee?

Both pronunciations (visual and audio) seem wrong.

Mitch


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mitchpowell #181977 01/23/09 09:13 AM
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I'm afraid sui generis isn 't French but Latin.
So maybe the French pronounce their Latin your way. As each language has it's own pronounciation for Latin we would pronounce it like s¨wee gayneris (throaty G)

mitchpowell #181978 01/23/09 09:13 AM
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Originally Posted By: mitchpowell
I don't know a lot of French


Which does not seem particularly relevant to a discussion of the Latin phrase sui generis. Since the phrase is not French, why would it pronounced as if it were?

latishya #181980 01/23/09 02:03 PM
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Originally Posted By: latishya
Originally Posted By: mitchpowell
I don't know a lot of French


Which does not seem particularly relevant to a discussion of the Latin phrase sui generis. Since the phrase is not French, why would it pronounced as if it were?

This comment does not seem particularly relevant to the question asked by mitchpowell. Since he (?) thought it was French, he also thought it would be pronounced as French. If he knew it was Latin, he wouldn't have posted at all. What is the point of highlighting the fact that he didn't know it was Latin? Yes, the email does say "From Latin", however that does not necessarily mean it is Latin.

mitchpowell: Welcome to the board! I don't know a lot of French, either. You've got good company. I do know some Latin, but I can see how "sui", which I did not recognize, might look like French to some. This phrase is new to me.

President Obama used another phrase which illustrates the kind that always bugs me: "...the only people that really know are the collection of ex-Presidents we have." It sounds wrong to me. I am wanting to put "in" or "part of" after "are": "...the only people that really know are in/part of the collection of ex-Presidents we have." Any comments?

twosleepy #181985 01/23/09 05:06 PM
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Originally Posted By: twosleepy
Originally Posted By: latishya
Originally Posted By: mitchpowell
I don't know a lot of French


Which does not seem particularly relevant to a discussion of the Latin phrase sui generis. Since the phrase is not French, why would it pronounced as if it were?

This comment does not seem particularly relevant to the question asked by mitchpowell. Since he (?) thought it was French, he also thought it would be pronounced as French. If he knew it was Latin, he wouldn't have posted at all. What is the point of highlighting the fact that he didn't know it was Latin? Yes, the email does say "From Latin", however that does not necessarily mean it is Latin.

mitchpowell: Welcome to the board! I don't know a lot of French, either. You've got good company. I do know some Latin, but I can see how "sui", which I did not recognize, might look like French to some. This phrase is new to me.

President Obama used another phrase which illustrates the kind that always bugs me: "...the only people that really know are the collection of ex-Presidents we have." It sounds wrong to me. I am wanting to put "in" or "part of" after "are": "...the only people that really know are in/part of the collection of ex-Presidents we have." Any comments?


3 PART COMMENT:

1) I totally agree with 2sleepy's read on this.

2) MY first response to sui generis was: If this is Word for a Day, when did it become 2 words for a day? Is Anu bending the rules because it's an expression from a foreign language? Does he sometimes have a two word WORD in english as well? JUST WONDERING...

3) On your final comment sleepy, I was wondering, do you prefer "data are" or "data is"?

I'm slowly getting used to data are, having been committed to "data is", for years. Apparently the Times still uses both. The example you were wondering about seems more natural for me to use the plural because the reference to the "collection of ex-presidents". With data, I guess I've always been used to viewing it as singular.

Fauve #181987 01/23/09 06:20 PM
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Quote:
Does he sometimes have a two word WORD in english as well? JUST WONDERING...

wow, there's a sixty-four-dollar question; or, take a look a his "word" list. (or, "This week we'll feature terms"...)

-joe (just being a wise-guy again) friday

BranShea #181994 01/24/09 12:14 AM
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Originally Posted By: BranShea
I'm afraid sui generis isn 't French but Latin.
So maybe the French pronounce their Latin your way. As each language has it's own pronounciation for Latin we would pronounce it like s¨wee gayneris (throaty G)


There are basically two main pronunciations of Latin: Classic and Ecclesiastical.
Classic would call Caesar: "Ky zer"
Ecclesiastical would say; "Say zar"

If you are classic: it is: su ee gay nay ris
if you're Ecclesiastical: su ee jen er is

Last edited by LukeJavan8; 01/24/09 12:17 AM.

----please, draw me a sheep----
LukeJavan8 #181995 01/24/09 12:18 AM
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Presidents are sui generis: that is why it is so lonely
at the top.


----please, draw me a sheep----
tsuwm #181998 01/24/09 12:52 AM
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Originally Posted By: tsuwm
Quote:
Does he sometimes have a two word WORD in english as well? JUST WONDERING...

wow, there's a sixty-four-dollar question; or, take a look a his "word" list. (or, "This week we'll feature terms"...)

-joe (just being a wise-guy again) friday


Aha! Thanks for the link.

LukeJavan8 #181999 01/24/09 12:53 AM
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Then there's always the German pronunciation of Latin. Yet another variant.

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