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#164908 01/07/07 08:01 AM
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sjmaxq Offline OP
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As each new year seems to generate lists of words and phrases that are apparently crimes against "proper" English, I will ask agaain a query that has not yet been answered. It is a question for the adamant prescriptivists, those who draw Nazca lines in the sands of our language, and insist that none may cross them (the lines or the authors thereof, it matters not).

I am currently reading a fascinating book on the circumstances and history of the period around the disappearance of Geoffrey Chaucer from the historical record. The book has a great many quotations from his works. All are presented in both the original and in Modern English. I'm grateful for this because even though I can actually manage to make sense of the original, the effort required is more than I'd choose to spend, since his English and mine are quite different animals. So here's the question:

Who gets to decide what are the inviolable rules of English? If breaking "the rules" is so heinous, and if new coinages and usages are invariably condemned as heretical, corruptions of the "purity" of the language, why don't all prescriptivists speak the language of Beowulf?

#164909 01/07/07 12:33 PM
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Ic ne wat.

#164910 01/07/07 04:39 PM
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On behalf of the adamant pre-: "drive" for a semiconductor-chip serially-addressed random-acess memory hanging from a belt loop by a keychain

For kicks, "Write-only memory"

Last edited by dalehileman; 01/07/07 04:42 PM.

dalehileman
#164911 01/07/07 05:59 PM
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Quote:

For kicks, "Write-only memory"




WOM was a joke back in the '70s.

#164912 01/07/07 06:39 PM
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sjmaxq Offline OP
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Quote:

Ic ne wat.




As chuffed as I was to understand that on first glance, the real problem is that "they don't either", if the persistent unanswered status of this question is any guide.

#164913 01/07/07 07:27 PM
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Who gets to decide what are the inviolable rules of English?

Nobody. One can glean the grammatical rules of a language by observing and recording how users of that language acutally write and speak.

If breaking "the rules" is so heinous, and if new coinages and usages are invariably condemned as heretical, corruptions of the "purity" of the language, why don't all prescriptivists speak the language of Beowulf?

Or Proto-Indo-European or Neanderthalese? Because nobody who speaks Old English holds such views.


Ceci n'est pas un seing.
#164914 01/07/07 07:48 PM
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Quote:

Who gets to decide what are the inviolable rules of English?

Nobody. One can glean the grammatical rules of a language by observing and recording how users of that language acutally write and speak.




Preacher, meet choir. Thanks, though. That's kind of why I addressed the question to the "adamant prescriptivists", the kind who submit entries to that LSU list.

#164915 01/08/07 07:02 PM
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roflmao


Rev. Alimae
#164916 01/10/07 03:44 PM
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After Fal's last followup I went back and re-read the q. Who gets to decide? Time's Man of the Year

When does the prescriptivist eventually accept a new usage in spite of his inclinations? After it has been around long enough to find its way into the very oldest editions of Merriam, Random, etc

As a former prescriptivist I used to rail against the idea of assigning a wildly divergent meaning to an old word, suggesting instead the coinage of a new one. When I realized mine was but a voice in the wilderness, however, I turned in my credentials


dalehileman
#164917 01/10/07 04:56 PM
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Quote:

After it has been around long enough to find its way into the very oldest editions of Merriam, Random, etc




I wonder what year it will be when "google" finds its way into the 1828 edition? (^_^) j/k <runs and hides>

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