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to all newbies/strangers whom it may concern:
by jumping into long threads and replying without providing some context (via 'quote', cut/paste, etc.), you tend to confuse us poor folk who read this stuff in flat mode. thank you for your kind attention.
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Carpal Tunnel
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In reply to:
by jumping into long threads and replying without providing some context (via 'quote', cut/paste, etc.), you tend to confuse us poor folk who read this stuff in flat mode. thank you for your kind attention.
Thanks for the heads up, tsuwm
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old hand
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old hand
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Hi Faldage
You said:
From a logical point of view what the barber does to men who do not shave themselves has no bearing on what he does to those who do shave themselves.
This is absolutely correct, and none of us pointed it out. Yet I remember quite clearly a genuinely logical paradox in the barber scenario, and realised that Emanuela statment of the problem left unstates something that we all considered implicit in the case:
The barber not only shaves all who don't shave themselves, but also only shaves those who do not shave themselves. It's the only that makes the difference because (apart from the 'riddle' answer of the barber being a woman, or someone not needing shaving) the barber is now constrained not to shave himself... and therefore to do so... and therefore to refrain... and so on
cheer
the sunshine warrior
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Carpal Tunnel
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In reply to:
All rules have exceptions, including this one.
OK, please supply an example of an exception to the above stated rule.
Itself.
Or
Rule 1: The umpire is always right.
Rule 2: When the umpire is wrong, see Rule 1.
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Carpal Tunnel
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Thanks shanks for "The barber not only shaves all who don't shave themselves, but also only shaves those who do not shave themselves."
I agree that the inclusion of the word "only" makes a big difference, but, in a larger sense, I must protest that a paradox is more a measure of our ignorance or sloppy thinking than it is a measure of the irrationality of a situation.
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old hand
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old hand
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but, in a larger sense, I must protest that a paradox is more a measure of our ignorance or sloppy thinking than it is a measure of the irrationality of a situation.
What about Godel's paradox, that leads to his incompleteness theorem. Nothing sloppy about his thinking. Nothing straightforward about Incompleteness.
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Carpal Tunnel
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Another great perk for Cadillac owners, I assume.
But my real question is:
What do you have when you have the barber running around screaming, "Shave yourselves! Shave yourselves!"?
Answer:
The Saracens are at the gate.
Ted adroitly wraps two disparate threads together. If he does that enough he'll have enough rope to hang himself!
TEd
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>Ted adroitly wraps two disparate threads together. If he does that enough he'll have enough rope to hang himself!
but let's hope it doesn't all come unravelled on you in January... you'd feaze to death!
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In reply to:
What about Godel's paradox...
I have on order at my local bookstore a copy of a book that is supposed to be an exceptionally clear exposition of Godel's Incompleteness Theorem, Godel's Proof by Ernest Nagel. Perhaps after I have read it we can start a whole new thread. My present understanding of the incompleteness theorem does not interfere with my present beliefs on paradoxes.
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> but let's hope it doesn't all come unravelled on you in January... you'd feaze to death!
Now would that be malfeazance or misfeazance?
TEd
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