We pronounce 'c' in two different ways in modern English. How can we say for sure that the Romans always pronounced it in one way? Why can't they have been like us and have had more than one pronunciation depending on the word?
They (or someone at some stage) had more than one pronunciation for 'v'. Back in the days when 'v' and 'u' were the same letter written down. (MARCVS VINCIT.)
My understanding is that it took some time for the separate pronunciations to settle out into 'v' and 'u'.
And even more time for 'w' to evolve out as a separate letter. Plus, it evolved differently in English and in German. Think about Vienna. Wien. wsieber or someone will correct me if I'm totally wrong, but 'Wien' in German is pronounced more or less as 'Veen' in English. And the classic fake German accent replaces all our English 'w' sounds with 'v' sounds. 'Vat vill you do?'
So tell me, what is 'uet'? Is it an animal doctor or is it the way rain feels?
