>>I was given to understand - many years ago, from what source I cannot now remember, that the "rule" about split infinitives dates back to the late 18th early 19th century or when the written language was being codified in a fairly systematic fashion (to do with increased literacy levels, I think) and Latin was used as a bench mark. The argument is that, as Latin has no split infinitive, then nor should English.
This of course, ignores the fact that Latin infinitives are single words.

Yep. Running the risk of having my head bit off once and for all, RhuCo, I cited this also when split infinitives were discussed in an earlier thread. Victorians and their grammar. Pshaw. I have a source somewhere, but I'm not at home on this long weekend (using someone else's computer), so I can't get to it right now.

Thanks to AnnaStrophic for advice on colo(u)rs, emoticons, etc
... and my thanks go to tsuwm and Jackie, who showed me how to use them.