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#4071 07/16/2000 6:00 PM
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how many tenses are there in the english language?
and what are they?
what counts as a tense?
are imperative, passive and modal forms considered tenses?
having been thinking about this it seems you can only make two tenses with a verb, past and present, unless you add an auxiliary verb to a participle.


#4072 07/17/2000 4:54 AM
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Tense -- a change in the form of a verb to show, among other things, time reference. Therefore English has two tenses, past and present.

Aspect -- speaker's/hearer's viewpoint with regard to the action of a verb. English has simple, progressive (aka continuous), perfect, and perfect progressive (aka perfect continous) aspects. The aspects combine with tenses to make e.g. present perfect continous.

NB. These are linguistic features, not part of the real world. Thus, what we call past tense for convenience's sake does not have to relate to past time, e.g. It's time we were going. , refers to present time rather than past time despite the past tense form were

Voice -- active v. passive

Mood -- indicative v. imperative v. interrogative

As the question of how many tenses ran and ran in the magazine "English Today" I don't expect everyone will agree with the above.

PS I remember once seeing a cartoon of a couple in a travel agent's saying "Somewhere with no irregular verbs please."

Bingley


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#4073 07/17/2000 8:14 AM
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> Tense -- a change in the form of a verb to show, among other things, time reference. Therefore English has two tenses,
past and present.

Excuse me for pointing out the blatantly obvious but isn't there a future tense? I seem to remember one being taught to me at school. Also, most schoolchildren will be familiar with writing lines as punishment. 'I will not talk in class' etc. etc. ad nauseum. Past? Present? I think not!! Definitely future!


#4074 07/17/2000 8:57 AM
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Will is certainly one way of talking about the future, but is it a future tense?

Will is a modal verb rather than a change in the form of the verb itself, as in write - wrote , which is how I would define a tense.

Why choose will as the future tense rather than for example is going to ?
I'm going to visit my aunt at the weekend refers to the future.
"Who can that be at this time of night?" "Oh, that will be Candi. He said he was coming round." , and She will drive too fast, even though I've told her often enough to slow down do not refer to the future.

Bingley


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#4075 07/17/2000 11:13 AM
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Sure, English has a future tense. It's not synthetically constructed, as are the present and the simple past, but that doesn't make it any less of a tense. I think we are confusing superficial construction here with deep meaning.
I agree with the grammar folks who say English in fact has a total of six tenses: the past perfect, simple past, present, present continuous, future and future perfect.
And as for Bingley's example "It's time we were going" I submit that "were" in that phrase is not in the past tense, it is in the subjunctive mood. As it were


#4076 07/17/2000 12:51 PM
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Websters seem to go for 3 simple, 3 perfect and 6 progressive variations.

When I did Latin we spent ages on "pluperfect" for example "I wish I were king" - I'm not sure where that fits in. As for subjunctives - that's all lost in haze!

SIMPLE TENSES
Present
Past
Future

PERFECT TENSES
Present perfect
Past perfect
Future perfect

PROGRESSIVE
TENSES
Present progressive
Past progressive
Future progressive
Present perfect progressive
Past perfect progressive
Future perfect progressive

http://webster.commnet.edu/HP/pages/darling/grammar/tenses/tense_frames.htm


#4077 07/17/2000 4:37 PM
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"will" is certainly always listed as the standard future tense, along with "be going to". but aren't they just present tense used for the future? is "might" also future? it certainly refers to the future.
i'm also wondering where a construction like "i am to go" comes in. the auxiliary is simple present and the verb is infinitive. what's that called?



#4078 07/17/2000 10:13 PM
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Thanks, Jo.... I wrote my post way too fast early this morning and am not going to go back and correct it in the hope that no one but you and William saw it ... I forgot to include present perfect. That would make a total of seven common tenses. But still yes, I agree with you and your source, we have all those tenses (continuous = progressive). Doesn't matter how they are constructed - each refers to a different time frame and therefore must be considered a tense. Now, I thought pluperfect was the same as past perfect ... and your example "I wish I were king" was subjunctive mood. Homework time.....

Has anyone ever studied the Hopi language? No tenses at all.

William, again it doesn't really matter how the future tense is constructed, it exists as a tense. "Might" is a modal and not properly a tense (getting a headache now). I'd like to hear from one of our German-speaking interlocutors on this. That language has is all sorted out.


#4079 07/17/2000 10:37 PM
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Mmmm does pluperfect only mean Past perfect?? I'm sure you are right but my Latin teacher made it sound so-ooo much more complicated than that!

Yes I think "wishing .." was subjuctive something or other. Thanks for clearing that up.

Unfortunately we were the first year of a new Latin syllabus which aimed to bring the subject "to life". Unfortunately they forgot that part of the whole reason to learn Latin was to understand a very ordered grammatical system. They discarded "nominative" and "vocative" (amo, amas, amat .. ) and talked about "form a" and "form b". In effect they threw the baby out with the bathwater and we were totally confused. I did learn a lot about the rude bits of Catullus though, so there were compensations.


#4080 07/17/2000 11:22 PM
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>>Unfortunately we were the first year of a new Latin syllabus which aimed to bring the subject "to life".<<

Sounds like my "New Math" scars....

As for Catullus and - Ovid - I had to discover those guys on my own.
Congratulations, (I think) on your transition from an enthusuast to an addict, Jo.


#4081 07/18/2000 4:40 AM
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Why should were in It's time we were going be subjunctive when it looks exactly like the past tense? In Latin it's simple, there are different tenses and moods and they have, by and large, different forms. But that's Latin. English is a different language, with its own rules.

Bingley


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#4082 07/18/2000 5:06 AM
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What actually is the difference between might and will that one should be a modal and the other a tense?

What is the relevance of German tenses? Why should English verbs follow a description of German? It's like saying German and Latin have a dative and so English must have one as well.

Bingley


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#4083 07/18/2000 6:59 AM
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> Has anyone ever studied the Hopi language? No tenses at all.

Japanese too, I believe. I learned it for a while. Apart from the verb-subject-object orientation of the sentences it made the language much easier to learn.


#4084 07/18/2000 11:20 AM
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Indonesian doesn't really have tenses in the sense that the verb never changes, which is not to say it can't talk about when things happen: various adverbs of time are used meaning later, ever, etc.

Bingley


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#4085 07/18/2000 12:26 PM
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>how many tenses are there in the english language?

having carefully read all the responses to this point, I think I can safely summarize and say that there are (at least) three; they are:

tense
tenser (more tense)
tensest (most tense)

[grin]


#4086 07/18/2000 1:31 PM
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>>Why should were in It's time we were going be subjunctive when it looks exactly like the past tense? In Latin it's simple, there are different tenses and moods and they have, by and large, different forms. But that's Latin. English is a different language, with its own rules. <<

English is a renegade, hybrid language, a relatively late product of Norman French and tribal Anglo-Saxon languages. Hence we have both "beef" and "cow"; both "pork" and "pig." Latin grammar rules were imposed on it in the 19th century. Just because the "were" in the subjunctive is spelled the same way as the "were" in the plural simple past doesn't mean the two serve the same grammatical function. Again, we are confusing superficial construction with deep meaning. This is not really the place to go into sentence diagramming, but that would be a good lead for you to follow, Bingley ... German also had its dose of Latin grammar imposed on it, and is a language that follows the rules well. Perhaps our researchers-without-peer, jmh and tsuwm, can find you a good grammar site that explains this.


#4087 07/18/2000 2:16 PM
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never one to pass on a challenge...

http://www.humanscapeindia.org/hs1299/h129911t.htm




#4088 07/18/2000 2:27 PM
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I love it, tsuwm. Great find. You have wielded Ockham's Razor well. But can you find us a "western" site on structural linguistics and the deep meaning of tenses, modals, etc?


#4089 07/18/2000 2:46 PM
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annastrophic,
are you saying because will is used only for the future it must be a future tense? why can't might fit that category too?
i was also thinking that if "it's time we were going" is subjunctive, "it's time i were going" would be the first person form. to me "it's time i was going" sounds better.
starting to sound like an endless argument here...


#4090 07/18/2000 3:05 PM
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another question (sorry)
is there a present perfect continuous in the passive.
if i say "the building has been used for ten years" it seems to continue, but "it has been built" would be finished. can say "it has been being built for ten years"? or do i just say "they have been building it.."?
by the way, japanese does have more than one tense. it has a clear past tense, and several present ones; both have continuous forms. there are various ways to indicate future. the verb stem actually changes in the "let's" form in a way that might be considered a pure future tense. there is no perfect, however.


#4091 07/18/2000 3:11 PM
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Well, Tsuwm--
If the future shall show that I have been proven to be right (ok, y'all pick that one apart if you wish!), I seem to detect an admission that thee might have learned a lesson!

I like your three tenses! Maybe "tension" could be a fourth? Or perhaps that's not worth at-tension.

Now--you said you are >>never one to pass on a challenge...<
I beg to differ, my Dear! Many of your posts have shown that you are EVER one to 'pass on' a challenge, and many of us have responded to them!

Like Anna, I enjoyed humanscape... Thanks!




#4092 07/18/2000 3:26 PM
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william,
not this week, dear, I have a headache.
(passing the buck)


#4093 07/18/2000 4:17 PM
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Didn't get very far Anna - just more of the same. Sorry to disappoint. Hope you are not suffering from Verbal Diorrhoea.

http://webster.commnet.edu/HP/pages/darling/grammar/verbs.htm


#4094 07/18/2000 5:44 PM
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>suffering from Verbal Diorrhoea

there is, of course, an actual word for this: logorrhea



#4095 07/18/2000 9:01 PM
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Ah but is it verb-al logorrhea??


#4096 07/19/2000 5:11 AM
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I would say "tense" or "subjunctive" refers to verb forms , each of which may have more than one function. What we call the past form wrote or was/were may or may not have the function of referring to past time. Tense and time are not the same, one is a linguistic category, the other is a fact of the world (possibly, but I'm not going to open that can of worms here).

There are some remnants of a subjunctive in English -- recognisable in the present because there is no s on the third person singular or do with the negative ( I suggest Alex consult a lawyer as soon as possible. The doctor suggested the patient not be disturbed.) and only recognisable in the past tense where it is used for contra-factual conditions with the verb to be ( If I were you ).

William, go with your instincts. It's time I were going sounds wrong because it is wrong. It's wrong because it's not a subjunctive. Maybe in Latin it would have to be a subjunctive (I can't remember) but that's irrelevant.

will is a modal verb like must, may, might, can, could, shall, should . It is usually but not always used to talk about the future, and is not the only way of talking about the future, so why call it a future tense?

Latin is an excellent language, but it is not English, and its linguistic rules and categories do not apply to English. English does not inflect nouns in the same way as Latin does, so it has no dative or ablative. Similarly English verbs work in different ways from Latin ones.


Bingley


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#4097 07/19/2000 1:13 PM
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Bingley,
that certainly makes sense to me. i guess the rules we use don't always describe things accurately. at least as long as our language can't really account for time.
sorry for posing such a pedantic question everybody!


#4098 07/20/2000 9:00 AM
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>>Also, most schoolchildren will be familiar with writing lines as punishment. 'I will not talk in class' etc.<<

I'm afraid I went to the kind of school where they made us write 'I shall not talk in class.'

Nor was it 'definitely future' - more of a 'possibly in the future, but more likely in your dreams'!


#4099 07/20/2000 9:17 AM
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>>Unfortunately they forgot that part of the whole reason to learn Latin was to understand a very ordered grammatical system. They discarded "nominative" and "vocative" (amo, amas, amat .. )<<

I'm with you jmh, I learned most of my grammar from studying foreign languages - and a great help it was to me when I ended up teaching English in Japan, which is I suspect part of the reason William started this thread in the first place!

But 'amo, amas, amat...' is not nominative and vocative. Nominative and vocative are for noun declensions, not conjugating verbs. English nouns (thankfully!) don't decline, but pronouns do. See the old-fashioned pronoun thread if you feel strong enough.



#4100 07/20/2000 9:39 AM
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>>I would say "tense" or "subjunctive" refers to verb forms <<

Bingley, I wouldn't agree, although I'm open to persuasion!

I'd say a tense refers to a time relative to the here and now (past, present, future) and also to a 'length of time' of action (simple, continuous - this is what you called aspect way back in your first post). Tense is a way of translating time into verbal categories.

The form of a verb is more than its tense - it is a combination of tense, voice, mood and person (at least! There may be more I have forgotten.) 'You go', 'Do you go?' and 'Go!' are all second person present tense, but they are indicative, interrogative and imperative respectively, and they are all different forms.

'Person' of a verb clearly translates the 'doer' or subject into a verbal category.
'Voice' translates whether the subject is acting or being acted upon.

'Mood' I find a bit more complex. No-one so far has mentioned conditional - is this the same as subjunctive in English? I don't think so. Perhaps indicative is 'likely actually to happen', conditional is 'might happen' and subjunctive is 'unlikely to happen'. Maybe mood is degrees of likeliness? (Interrogative would then be 'of unknown likelihood' or 'trying to find out likelihood'. Not sure where this leaves imperatives, though?)

When I start tryng to work out mood, I end up with sentences like those below. I know they are different, I know what they mean / imply in terms of whether something is going to happen, might happen / is totally hypothetical, but I don't know what mood all these verbs are in.

If I don't eat, I am hungry.
If I don't eat, I will be hungry.
If I didn't eat, I would be hungry.
If I were not to eat, I would be hungry.

...I am now way out of my depth!



#4101 07/21/2000 4:50 AM
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Sure, Bridget, I would agree verb forms show more than just tenses. But "you go" is not a verb form, it's a sentence. "You" is not part of the verb.

[quote] 'Mood' I find a bit more complex. No-one so far has mentioned conditional - is this the same as subjunctive in English? {/quote]

I think in English conditional is a type of sentence , which sometimes has a subjunctive verb. Conditional sentences usually have if or a similar word in there sometimes. They can be generalisations (if I drink too much coffee, I can't sleep), factual (If I drink too much coffee now I won't be able to sleep tonight), or counterfactual (If I drank too much coffee I wouldn't be able to sleep tonight (but in fact I'm not going to drink too much coffee)). Each of these types can be adapted to refer to past, present, or future. Counterfactuals referring to the present or future use a past subjunctive form (If I were you, ).

Sorry this is a bit rushed as I have to go out.

Bingley


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#4102 07/21/2000 1:37 PM
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Bridget

You are very kind. How politely you point out my stupidity! I spotted my error whilst visiting a friend. I combined two bits of grammar.

Here are my lines as punishment:

nominative singular Dominus "Lord"
genitive singular Domini "Lord’s" or "of the Lord"
dative singular Domino "to or for the Lord"
accusative singular Dominum "Lord" (English objective case)
ablative singular Domino "by or with (etc.) the Lord"
vocative singular Domine "Lord" (direct address)

nominative plural Domini "Lords"
genitive plural Dominorum "Lords’ or "of the Lords"
dative plural Dominis "to or for the Lords"
accusative plural Dominos "Lords" (English objective case)
ablative plural Dominis "by or with (etc.) the Lords"

As you say - thank goodness we don't have to do all that in English!


#4103 07/21/2000 5:26 PM
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>>Sure, Bridget, I would agree verb forms show more than just tenses. But "you go" is not a verb form, it's a sentence. "You" is not part of the verb.<<

Yes, Bingley, totally valid.

I think what was going on in my brain was about persons of the verb and 'go' versus 'goes', where the change in form is entirely to do with person and not with tense at all.

Bad example to demonstrate the point we seem to agree on that form covers more ground than tense.

As for conditionals, when I wrote this I was remembering learning the 'conditional tense' in French. Having thought about it, I remember that what I was actually taught was to use the imperfect tense in a conditional sentence. So I suspect you are right about it being a type of sentence. (in English - in Japanese it is a different form of the verb.)

BTW this is a great thread - thanks to everyone who has posted in it.


#4104 07/21/2000 5:48 PM
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i generally teach my students present tense (with action verbs) is for habits and routines eg. i always win at poker; past tense is for something that happened and is finished eg. i won at poker last night; and present perfect is for something that happened before now but the time doesn't matter so much eg. i have won a few times at poker.
now imagine a game has just finished and you won.
you can say "i win", "i won" or "i've won".
where does that leave the old tenses? and the old teacher?!


#4105 07/21/2000 6:28 PM
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>you can say "i win", "i won" or "i've won". <

The way I see it, it depends on your mental state of time:

I win - you're still living in the moment
I've won - still close to the moment, but coming out of it.
I won - it's all over and done with and you're moving on to the next thing.

The present perfect is about achievement or completion, no?

Then again, talking of mental states, it's the middle of the night and I don't guarantee mine!


#4106 07/22/2000 2:23 PM
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bridget, i know what you're saying, and i think you can reduce these uses to their nuances.
my problem is that all three can be used for the same situation with ALMOST no change in meaning. and even a native speaker would accept all three without even a slight glance at the grammar books.


#4107 07/23/2000 9:14 AM
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>>my problem is that all three can be used for the same situation with ALMOST no change in meaning.<<

William, off-topic, but I have to share it with you because I know what you're up against!

My all-time poser for explaining to the Japanese was what makes the following sentences mean what they do:

That man has few ideas.
That man has a few ideas.


#4108 07/24/2000 5:04 AM
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The problem still comes down to the fact that tenses, aspects, persons, etc. are linguistic categories, whereas situations happen in the real world. It's like countable and uncountable nouns: the difference is based on the real world but then language goes its own merry way and gets those of us who have to explain it more and more confused.

One book I did find helpful when I first started wrestling with all this in a teaching context was Michael Lewis's "The English Verb".

Bingley


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#4109 07/24/2000 2:21 PM
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bridget, i hear ya!
actually i love explaining (or trying to explain) the capricities (jackie, is that another one for my dictionary?) of english to my students. it just makes the teacher's job so much more interesting. imagine explaining something you understood yourself! you'd be bored to drink!
bingley, i'll have a look out for the book. is it still in print?


#4110 07/24/2000 2:49 PM
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In reply to:

My all-time poser for explaining to the Japanese was what makes the following sentences mean what they do:

That man has few ideas.
That man has a few ideas.


It's getting late, Bridget, so I'm not sure how coherent this is, but here goes.

Few means not many. A few means not none. Why?

I suspect the answer is to do with the general meaning of definite (the), indefinite (a/an), and zero ( __ ) articles. Consider the following:

The people who came to the party enjoyed themselves.
We have a definite group in mind, all of whom are included. Similarly with The few people who came to the party enjoyed themselves.

A group of people who came to the party enjoyed themselves.
Here the group of people is indefinite, is part of a larger group. Hence A few (of the) people who came to the party enjoyed themselves.

People who came to the party enjoyed themselves. No article, so not a definite group of people. Similarly Few people who came to the party enjoyed themselves.

You can probably think of better examples to illustrate the point, but I think that's on the right lines. Whether it would actually be useful for your students or would only confuse them even more, is another matter.

William, I'm told that a second edition of the Michael Lewis book came out a year or so ago, so it should still be in print.


Bingley



Bingley
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