Originally Posted By: zmjezhd
If one is to apply the etymological fallacy pedantically


This is what the OED does, it seems to me. They note that some prefer the spelling -ise for words borrowed from French, and -ize for words borrowed from Greek. But then they say
Quote:
But the suffix itself, whatever the element to which it is added, is in its origin the Greek -ιζειν, Latin -izāre; and, as the pronunciation is also with z, there is no reason why in English the special French spelling should be followed, in opposition to that which is at once etymological and phonetic.


Last edited by goofy; 06/01/2011 2:55 PM.