Wordsmith Talk |
About Us | What's New | Search | Site Map | Contact Us | |||
Register Log In Wordsmith.org Forums General Topics Miscellany Spanish grammar question:
Previous Thread
Next Thread
Print Thread
You're referencing Wikipedia! I thought you were on my Wiki-haters list....
Moi? Nope, I find Wikipedia useful, and cite it often.
here may be some confusion and/or controversy regarding the "third person" label.
Agreed. I was using it because that's how I have often seen it referred to in linguistics texts and grammars. But, if you're going to call no llores a 2nd person negative imperative, then I guess I can call llore a 3rd person imperative. Latin had these, too. Vivat rex 'let the king live', fiat lux 'let there be light', etc.
The problem in the end is one of terminology. Some people like their terminology to be based on forms. And others on function.
my intent was to be humorous about the corrections, with a little added jubilation (I rarely get to be the "expert")
I appreciated that you pointed out some problems with my post, and I tried to rectify them. I hope I did not seem to be taking umbrage.
[Addendum: a discussion of imperative mood in the Gramática de la lengua castellana by Real Academia Española (link), including examples of 3PS and 1PP.]
Last edited by zmjezhd; 11/02/09 06:31 PM.
Ceci n'est pas un seing.
Moderated by Jackie
Link Copied to Clipboard
Forum Statistics Forums16Topics13,915Posts229,911Members9,197 Most Online3,341
Dec 9th, 2011
Newest Members Bill_L, achz, MAGNVSTALSMA, Burlyfish, Renegade98
9,197 Registered Users
Who's Online Now 0 members (), 621 guests, and 2 robots. Key: Admin, Global Mod, Mod
Top Posters(30 Days) A C Bowden 29
Top Posters wwh 13,858Faldage 13,803Jackie 11,613wofahulicodoc 10,904tsuwm 10,542LukeJavan8 9,948Buffalo Shrdlu 7,210AnnaStrophic 6,511Wordwind 6,296of troy 5,400
Forum Rules · Mark All Read Contact Us · Forum Help · Wordsmith.org