Originally Posted By: Faldage
 Originally Posted By: The Pook
I suspect the 'r' entered as a non-rhotic spelling variation.


I believe that non-rhoticism is much more recent than the 400 year b.p. date given for the introduction ofn sherbet and its almost immediate variation, sherbert. What I wanna know is, when it came into English did we know to change the French or Italian, whichever it was, initial S back to the original Arabic SH or was that just some ignorant, lazy solecism?

Language Log has given a date for the start of non-rhoticism, but I couldn't find it. Or maybe it was Nuncle zhd.

It's hard to see how it could be a deliberate rhotic spelling. Why would someone deliberately add an 'r' sound, thus making it harder to pronounce, not easier? It has to be spelling, not a real phonetic addition of a consonant, surely? It is probably a non-rhotic attempt to change the value of the 'e' to something more like a long schwa.

Last edited by The Pook; 05/06/2008 11:49 AM.