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 Originally Posted By: Faldage
 Originally Posted By: latishya
The presence of Spanish-sourced vocabulary does not make Tagalog a creole of Spanish. If it does, then English is a Spanish creole too.


Or either a French creole. I would say the simplest, and most likely, explanation is that Tagalog has a large number of Spanish loan words.


I agree! I think the Spanish language crept in during the centuries of Spanish rule.

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I had not realized that a Creole was not or could not become a language with it's own grammer etc. In fact I assumed that English itself was a creole of Norman and Saxon that continued to develope. From what I had heard I thought that Tagalog had done the same thing becouse of Spanish rule.
Does Norfolk have a blend of grammatical rules or just of word origins?

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Good point. Though I would have thought early English was a creole of Norman with the pre-existing creole formed from several previous creoles going right back to the creole of Roman Latin with Celtic languages?

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ah, a creeeeeeeeeeeeeeeooooooooooollllle

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Neither Old English nor Middle English are creoles in the strict sense. The Britons during the Roman Empire pretty much adopted Latin as the official state language, while retaining their various Brythonic dialects for non-official matters. When the Roman legions left to protect other, more important, parts of the crumbling empire, Latin started to fade. Then the Angles, the Saxons, and the Jutes showed up. They tended to keep to their newly founded villages, shrinking from the Roman cities which they thought of as the bones of large and dangerous creatures. When the Normans invaded, Norman French became the official or court language, but it did not replace English. When English again became the official language it had changed greatly and received a huge influx of French vocabulary, but it was basically still a Germanic language. I don't doubt that there were pidgins developed where Normans met with the English to conduct some business, but there is no trace of these, and they do not seem to have turned into creoles at some point.


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I suppose you're right, in the strict sense of the word, yes.

Probably the main legacy of Latin from the Roman occupation of Britain is place names (such as the capital London itself of course). There must be quite a few other words that were adopted and remained, but that does not indicate the formation of a creole, you're right. Nor did the later Roman Catholic ascendency over the indigenous Celtic church succeed in making Latin anything more than an ecclesiastical (and largely written) language.

The succeeding waves of invaders: Angles, Saxons, Jutes, Danes, Vikings, etc; had more influence on the language than the Romans since they integrated and were common people not just administrators and nobles. This was often probably only local and dialectic though. The Normans had the greatest effect, yet, as you point out, they did not succeed in changing the language of Britain into a Latin one, largely because it was a top-down innovation.

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There have been three waves of Latin words into English: (1) Old English absorbed many ecclesiastical terms; (2) during the English Renaissance many words were borrowed from Latin; and (3) since the 19th century many terms have been coined from the ISV (International Scientific Vocabulary).


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 Originally Posted By: zmjezhd
it was basically still a Germanic language.

And yet our grammer, let alone our vocabulary, is a mish-mash of these two very different systems, isn't it.

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 Originally Posted By: Zed
 Originally Posted By: zmjezhd
it was basically still a Germanic language.

And yet our grammer, let alone our vocabulary, is a mish-mash of these two very different systems, isn't it.


From what I've been taught in my English classes, I don't see much non-Germanic grammar.

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I can sure learn something every day here; thanks!
The Brythonic languages (from Welsh brython, “Briton”) are or were spoken on the island of Great Britain and consist of Welsh, Cornish, and Breton.
Britannica

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