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#175541 04/04/2008 3:29 PM
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[From Spanish, contraction of hijo de algo (son of something).
This reminded me of the thread on whether no name is no name, or not. What I want to ask is whether the "something" in this def. is derogatory, or does it just indicate lack of knowledge? "Something" as in, 'I don't want to say the ugly word for his parent(s) so I'll use this word something'; or as in, 'He could be the son of a peasant or a king, for all I know'?

Jackie #175544 04/04/2008 4:10 PM
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This week's words in a nutshell:
"Blimey, I prithee, willy-nilly hijo de hidalgo! Druthers you'd come home at last!"

but : \:D


Jackie #175545 04/04/2008 4:12 PM
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I believe it is the opposite of derogatory, actually, but includes a derogatory implication upon those who are not "hidalgo". Confused? LOL! Well, the "son of something" is as opposed to a "son of nothing", the "nothing" being the common people. Hence, it refers to nobility. It was probably a further shortening of a phrase, such as "hijo de algo importante". The word for someone is close, "alguien", and perhaps the original phrase used it, but phonemically it is very different. Phonemically "nothing" (nada) and "no one" (nadie) are much closer, but curiously, there is no word deriving from "son of nothing". Does that help? :0)

BranShea #175546 04/04/2008 4:17 PM
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 Originally Posted By: BranShea
This week's words in a nutshell:
"Blimey, I prithee, willy-nilly hijo de hidalgo! Druthers you'd come home at last!"





LOL! I thought about some of the words this week. Random thoughts: Prithee sounds like privy ;0)... Why not "willshe-nillshe"? These sexist languages...*sigh*

Jackie #175548 04/04/2008 4:23 PM
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Latin filius nullius 'son of nobody' is a legal term for an illegitimate son.


Ceci n'est pas un seing.
zmjezhd #175550 04/04/2008 6:31 PM
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Not sure, zmjezhd, if you were responding to my post:
 Originally Posted By: twosleepy
there is no word deriving from "son of nothing"
but I was actually making my statement within the context of my post, referring only to the lack of a "son of nothing" in Spanish, as I am well aware of my lack of familiarity with the hundreds of other languages on the planet! Do you know where this filius nullius is used? Thanks! :0)

twosleepy #175551 04/04/2008 7:12 PM
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the lack of a "son of nothing" in Spanish

Yes, I took your word about that lack. Filius nullius is post-Classical. It's purely a legal term as far as I know.


Ceci n'est pas un seing.
twosleepy #175554 04/04/2008 7:45 PM
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Ha!
 Quote:
willshe-nillshe be a filia nullia? Or willI-nillI?


( here goes nobility )

twosleepy #175558 04/05/2008 12:02 AM
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 Originally Posted By: twosleepy
Why not "willshe-nillshe"? These sexist languages...*sigh*


For what it's worth, when gender meant something in English the word from whence we got woman was masculine gender. Whether this meant that the masculine pronoun was used with it I wouldn't know. Modern German uses the sex-appropriate pronoun for any noun that refers to anything that has a sex regardless of its grammatical gender, but uses the grammatically appropriate pronoun for anything for which sex is irrelevant, e.g., der Wind is er, 'he' and die Fahne, 'flag' is sie, 'she.'

Faldage #175559 04/05/2008 12:23 AM
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As in modern French
le soleil a rendez-vous avec la lune,mais
le vent a rendez-vous avec le drapeau.

Faldage #175563 04/05/2008 1:48 AM
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gender

It's always a good idea not to confuse grammatical gender with the biological variety (aka noun classes, though I prefer the traditional term). Some languages have as many as a baker's dozen of genders, e.g., Kiswahili and its Bantu cousins (link).


Ceci n'est pas un seing.
zmjezhd #175565 04/05/2008 2:32 AM
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[The Ojibwe language and other members of the Algonquian languages distinguish between animate and inanimate classes. Some sources argue that the distinction is between things which are powerful and things which are not. All living things, as well as sacred things and things connected to the Earth are considered powerful and belong to the animate class. Still, the assignment is somewhat arbitrary, as "raspberry" is animate, but "strawberry" is inanimate.]

Tja, interesting , but nothing's perfect. Still is fun to observe.

BranShea #175583 04/05/2008 4:24 PM
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It's the same with gender in Spanish; dress is masculine, skirt feminine, shirt and blouse both feminine, as well as tie and jacket, trees are masculine, most words for car as well.. etc. etc.

twosleepy #175587 04/05/2008 6:12 PM
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Yes, but I think zmjezhd pointed out that many words are not gender related and I mean; why would the sun be male and the moon be female? (Oh, blimmy , I think I got it). Are we that cold?
Anyway, lots of systems in other languages and also there no totally consequent systems. Spanish and French and Italian are
closely related and act mostly similar. Gee, what a relaxed weekend this is.

BranShea #175592 04/05/2008 8:48 PM
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why would the sun be male and the moon be female? (Oh, blimmy , I think I got it).

Except, in German: der Mond und die Sonne (masculine moon and feminine sun): something I always wanted to archetypically ask Dr Jung.


Ceci n'est pas un seing.
zmjezhd #175597 04/05/2008 9:36 PM
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 Originally Posted By: zmjezhd
why would the sun be male and the moon be female? (Oh, blimmy , I think I got it).

Except, in German: der Mond und die Sonne (masculine moon and feminine sun): something I always wanted to archetypically ask Dr Jung.


Same in English back when gender meant something. The point is that gender, in general, has nothing to do with sex. It's only in a few languages that the two concepts have become conflated. In Modern English the concept of gender has pretty nmuch been lost completely. So much so that the word gender is used to mean 'sex,' as in male or female. The term sex is more often used to mean sexual intercourse.

zmjezhd #175607 04/06/2008 9:45 AM
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 Originally Posted By: zmjezhd
why would the sun be male and the moon be female? (Oh, blimmy , I think I got it).

Except, in German: der Mond und die Sonne (masculine moon and feminine sun): something I always wanted to archetypically ask Dr Jung.


In Middle Earth also if my memory serves me correctly...

zmjezhd #175623 04/06/2008 4:09 PM
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Yes, that's right: (Brecht: 'und der Mond war ganz dünn wie ein Pfennig der schon abgegriffen ist'.) Could it loosely be traced back to a matriarchal system in the very old days in these regions? The sun being femenine? ( Very Wild Guess).

BranShea #175624 04/06/2008 4:27 PM
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Could it loosely be traced back to a matriarchal system in the very old days in these regions?

Some comparative-historical linguists have theorized that Proto-Indo-European did not have a tripartite (masculine, feminine, neuter) grammatical gender system, but rather a dual one (animate, inanimate). It seems that the feminine gender developed from a reanalysis of the plural ending of inanimate nouns as an abstract and singular one: cf. Latin bonum 'good thing' and bona (earlier, literally 'good things', but later 'goods'; Greek also tends to use singular forms of verbs with neuter plural subjects. The German linguist Johannes Schmidt (link) did some of the early work in his Die Pluralbildungen der indogermanischen Neutra (1889, link).


Ceci n'est pas un seing.
zmjezhd #175664 04/07/2008 3:57 PM
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>It seems that the feminine gender developed from a reanalysis of the plural ending of inanimate nouns as an abstract and singular one: cf. Latin bonum 'good thing' and bona (earlier, literally 'good things', but later 'goods';

I could have known you answer a dumb question with a killer answer. \:\)

BranShea #175666 04/07/2008 4:14 PM
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a killer answer

Remember, it's just a theory. But, thanks for the compliment.


Ceci n'est pas un seing.
zmjezhd #175684 04/08/2008 10:36 AM
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 Originally Posted By: zmjezhd
a killer answer

Remember, it's just a theory. But, thanks for the compliment.


Is it a theory or an hypothesis?

The Pook #175687 04/08/2008 11:51 AM
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Is it a theory or an hypothesis?

Not in the hard sciences sense, but in the linguistics sense.


Ceci n'est pas un seing.

Moderated by  Jackie 

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