Wordsmith Talk |
About Us | What's New | Search | Site Map | Contact Us | |||
Register Log In Wordsmith.org Forums General Topics Words and languages in schools Base Word vs. Root word (or root)
Previous Thread
Next Thread
Print Thread
In describing inflected languages, like Latin, Greek, or Sanskrit, a distinction between affixes (pre-, in-, and suffixes) and desinences (grammatical endings) is usually made. The former are usually called derivational morphemes (they change the meaning), and the latter inflectional (they indicate the syntactic relationships between words in a phrase). In the study of morphology, there is a difference between free and bound morphemes: free ones can stand on their own, but bound ones are usually affixes, though some like the rasp in raspberry are not. The problem may be with less inflected languages, like English or Chinese. There a lexeme (aka lexical item, word) like man consists of a single morpheme, though come to think of it the Latin nominative singular vir 'man' has no explicit nominitival desinence, as rosa (i.e., the -a) does). Distinguishing between roots (single morphemes) and bases (root morpheme plus one or more affixes, or compounds) seems like a goodly distinction, though perhaps overkill for English morphology.
[Addendum: More on roots and stems.]
Last edited by zmjezhd; 02/13/08 02:01 PM.
Ceci n'est pas un seing.
Moderated by Jackie
Link Copied to Clipboard
Forum Statistics Forums16Topics13,915Posts230,115Members9,198 Most Online4,270
Aug 30th, 2025
Newest Members testawad, Bill_L, achz, MAGNVSTALSMA, Burlyfish
9,198 Registered Users
Who's Online Now 0 members (), 1,578 guests, and 1 robot. Key: Admin, Global Mod, Mod
Top Posters(30 Days) A C Bowden 26
Top Posters wwh 13,858Faldage 13,803Jackie 11,613wofahulicodoc 11,023tsuwm 10,542LukeJavan8 9,968Buffalo Shrdlu 7,210AnnaStrophic 6,511Wordwind 6,296of troy 5,400
Forum Rules · Mark All Read Contact Us · Forum Help · Wordsmith.org