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So, what is the current consensus then (if there is one) on how the inhabitants of the more northerly parts of the subcontinent ended up speaking Indo-European languages?



Wikipedia can be useful when it has good links. That article does.

Personally, I think it's slightly semantic. There is evidence of migration and intermingling. The problem is the whole AIT was dreamed up and overblown to serve particular socio-political ends at the time. ow, it's being most vehemently attacked by those pursuing other socio-political aims. Indeed, to me there is a certain irony in the fact that the core ideology of those now attacking theory (many of whom are extreme right-wing Hindu nationalists) is not dissimilar to that of those who first proposed it (also extreme right-wing nationalists). That's a whole nother kettle of fish, but.

noho ora mai
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