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#141659 04/03/2005 11:05 PM
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'The Wall Street Crash did not cause the Great Depression; the war did. Roosevelt's New Deal did not remedy the Great Depression; the war did.' --Robert Sobel, unknown source (either 'Panic on Wall Street' or 'The Great Bull Market').

Which rhetorical devices are at work in this sentence? I thought epistrophe but the word as defined on Onelook didn't capture the similarity of structure in the two non-identical clauses. Any ideas?


#141660 04/04/2005 12:12 AM
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Welcome, orchard!
If you can find Willard Espy's "The Garden of Eloquence", that will probably have the right word in it. I have a copy, but putting my hand on it will take me a couple of days.



#141661 04/04/2005 1:33 AM
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You might find it here, orchard:
http://www.virtualsalt.com/rhetoric.htm


#141662 04/04/2005 4:26 AM
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> similarity of structure in the two non-identical clauses.
Parallelism?


#141663 04/04/2005 9:00 AM
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If you can't find The Garden of Eloquence under the bed (with the dustballs, thank you very much), you can at http://humanities.byu.edu/rhetoric/Primary Texts/Peacham.htm. The New York Public Library catalogs one that contains examples from Henry Peacham's original of 1577. I don't know but that this one is "the original." Or isn't.

#141664 04/04/2005 9:53 AM
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I'll go with Avy in voting for parallelism for the overall structure, with the addeed bonus of epistrophe in the repetition of the phrase 'the war did.'


#141665 04/04/2005 4:37 PM
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I'll go with Faldage and Avy, except that I wonder why an epistrophe isn't just a species of parallelism (?).


#141666 04/04/2005 5:46 PM
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"The subtle distinction between two terms [of rhetoric]
is completely irrelevant."
- anon. college classics department chairman


#141667 04/04/2005 7:45 PM
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The subtle distinction between two terms [of rhetoric] is completely irrelevant.

The distinction might be irrelevant but methinks the *reason(ing) for using (having) two terms can't be.

Although an implied thrift comes with eloquence, does not specificity arrive as well?


#141668 04/04/2005 8:00 PM
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<<The subtle distinction...>>

Thus, my question, why not just say 'epistrophe' and leave it at that.


#141669 04/04/2005 10:19 PM
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why not just say 'epistrophe' and leave it at that

Sure. And why bother with distinguishing between, say, afterthought and forethought? Just call them both afterthought.


#141670 04/04/2005 11:56 PM
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An 'epistrophic parallelism' it is then. I'm not aiming for eloquence or specificity. My writerly persona is more the vague smart aleck, with a dash of wilful obscurity.

PS Wow that Peacham link is comprehensiverama!

----
Evangelise http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/KEO!


#141671 04/05/2005 2:03 AM
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<<sure. ...>>

Perhaps I misunderstood tsuwm. Or perhaps you misunderstood me. Whatever. It's not worth the effort.


#141672 04/05/2005 4:18 AM
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>Perhaps I misunderstood tsuwm.
I think near everyone here misunderstood the quote I posted (which was actually sent to me as something the head of some classics dept. actually said).

I'm pretty sure that the context of this was that the fine distinctions between some of these trope-types (that seem to cause mere mortals to forget which is which) hardly matter to anyone outside the halls of academia -- or maybe inside either.


#141673 04/05/2005 5:07 PM
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<<I think everyone here misunderstood the quote...>>

Thanks, t. That answers my question. I was looking for a fine point, and I'm satisfied that if there is one, it doesn't really matter anyway.



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