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That's an interesting question. It's right up there with why we use "have" to indicate perfect tenses or "go" as a periphrastic future. The latter is commonly used in Romance languages, but only, as far as I know, in English among the Germanic languages.
Entire Thread Subject Posted By Posted It used to be...? ParkinT 11/08/06 06:33 PM Re: It used to be...? Faldage 11/11/06 01:34 AM Re: It used to be...? ParkinT 11/12/06 12:30 AM
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