either the test is blind, or we know something about one of the two identical samples. Or did I miss something?

Understand your confusion.

I am not a student of such tests, nor have I ever participated in one, so the term "blind smell test" probably means something different to me than to someone who posseses those qualifications.

What I mean by a "blind smell test" is that the test participants have absolutely no fore-knowledge of what they are sampling.

In theory, this should ensure that they will be responding to the smell itself, and not to any suggestion implanted in their mind before they sample the sample.

If one knew in advance that one of the samples was a Jo Lo fragrance, and another a no-name sample, this would not be a "blind smell test" according to my definition, even if both samples were identical.

As an aside, it seems to me that the genius of the so-called "Pepsi Challenge" is that test participants are required to indicate a preference for one sample or another. They are not given the option of indicating that they can't tell the difference.

I have conducted my own small-scale surveys to test my hypothesis and my surveys demonstrate that most people (including myself) do not possess sufficient refinement in their 'taste buds' to distinguish a difference between Pepsi and Coke. This means that most people who 'prefer' Coke will choose Pepsi at least half of the time.

That's the genius of the "Pepsi Challenge".

A small percentage of the population can actually distinguish a difference between Coke and Pepsi in a 'blind taste test', but the percentage is too small to undermine the effectiveness of "the Pepsi Challenge" given that people with a 'true preference' will tend to cancel one another out.