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#61750 03/19/02 05:07 PM
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Any idea on the origin of grandfather as a verb? I have an idea, but no supporting documentation: that following the abolition of slavery in the USA in the 19th century, one of the ways used to prevent blacks from voting was to make it a requirement that one's grandfather had to have had the right to vote. Is that right? Is there an earlier origin?


#61751 03/19/02 05:31 PM
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I don't think the "grandfather clause" originated in US. It was used as you described, but i think it was an already an established practice in english common law.

I know we have a handful of lawyers here, but i think they are all US based -- do we have any solicitors? or baristers? or experts in English common law?

are there law sites for common law? the way this is a site for a common language? english common law has become established almost as firmly as english language. it has displaces other common laws (say brennen law, the common law of ireland, and it has largely displaced what ever law existed in india-- there are still exceptions--even in US.

some common law in Lousianna is still based on Napolianic code, especially civil law, and most especially when it involves business.


#61752 03/20/02 12:23 AM
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of troy, Reed is correct on this one. From the OED:

grandfather clause U.S. colloq., a clause in the constitutions of some Southern states, exempting from suffrage restrictions the descendants of men who voted before the Civil War;


it has displaces other common laws... there are still exceptions--even in US.

In Canada, Québec uses French Civil law, and on this pretext is guaranteed three members on the nine member Supreme Court of Canada.






#61753 03/20/02 02:31 AM
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#61754 03/20/02 02:03 PM
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I understand the concept "Grandfather Rights" to mean...

The free-grant of authority to those who had been engaged in activities prior to the government requiring the licensing of such pursuits.

"to grandfather", would follow to mean...

"A government acceptance of exclusion by virtue of established practice.


#61755 03/20/02 02:17 PM
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US law is not the same as English Common law, and there are some area's where there seem to be no relationship.. but most civil, and a good deal of criminal law is based on english common law.



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