All right, I have to ask, if the 'Byzantines' (presumably Greek Orthodox) and Syrians (edit: not to mention the Aremenians whose saint he is) celebrate the saint on 30 September, why did Gregory XVI choose 1 October when he recognised him on behalf of the Roman Catholic church?

Was it just to be different, or is there some subtle calendrical point about the difference between the Julian calendar and what the Gregorian calendar would have said if it had been around in the saint's lifetime?

Bingley


Bingley