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#42575 09/23/01 09:34 PM
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Carpal Tunnel
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it has been pointed out that I somehow missed an illocution:"Have you stopped beating your dog yet?" is NOT an illocution? Did I get that right? [how could this have happened?] rhetorical question

the answer is, yes, the quoted question is not an illocution in the manner in which illocution is defined philosophically and in speech theory. I xrefer you to the following: http://www.xrefer.com/entry/571772

while in theory a loaded question may have illocutionary force (I ain't no speech theoretician), an illocution is *not a loaded question, from my reading of it.

#42576 09/23/01 11:11 PM
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Thanks, tsuwm. Now I have another question (yes, me--imagine that): here is a partial quote from Xrefer.the illocutionary act is that of uttering it as a request; the perlocutionary act is what is accomplished by uttering it (e.g. the addressee might ignore the request, or might in fact help).
Would it be at all accurate to describe an illocutionary act as "cause", and a perlocutionary one as "effect"?


#42577 09/24/01 01:06 AM
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<<Would it be at all accurate to describe an illocutionary act as "cause", and a perlocutionary one as "effect"?

Off the cuff, at least one notable difference might be that the perlocutionary is an interpretive condition established by the illocutionary act wherein *either an action or non-action would function as the cognate of the effect in a cause and effect relationship. The very fact that non-action is then specified as *a **determinate non-action would be a definitive part of that condition. The occurrence or non-occurrence of the requested action, then, would not be the effect, the space in which that occurrence might be interpreted--which space is opened as a requirement of the illocutionary--might, however, be considered as the effect of the illocutionary. We would be talking, then, of cause and effect in the realm of the interpretation of speech acts. But that's just a guess.


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