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#199663 05/05/11 09:19 PM
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tsuwm Offline OP
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I can hardly wait (37,400) vs. I can't hardly wait (652) ... is there any difference?

Lights that flash in the evening,
Through a hole in the drapes
I'll be home when I'm sleeping
I can't hardly wait

- The Replacements

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Apart from one seemingly being a double negative, the other softer with a positive 'can'. I'd suggest geography would determine how you might say the same thing differently.

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They* always jumped all over us for using a double negative when we said "I can't hardly ..." in my youth. I could never see that hardly was a negative. When you say "I can hardly ..." you're saying that you can but it is with extreme difficulty. If you look at "I can't hardly ..." logically, then it would seem to mean that you can do it easily but, that's assuming that language acts logically, an extremely iffy proposition.

*You know darn well who they is so don't be asking. It was the same they that got on our case for saying "Can I ...?" when we were asking permission even though they used "Can I ...?" theirownselves.

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Joining the theme, I see. Can't hardly is improper English. That said--this reminds me of our discussion on could vs. couldn't care less.

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Can't hardly is improper Standard Written English. This is not to say that it is improper in all dialects of English. It is improper in any English you should be using if you want to get certain well-paying jobs. So right there, that's a difference.

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Can't hardly see how no one would speak like that no how, no way!


----please, draw me a sheep----
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tsuwm Offline OP
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Originally Posted By: Jackie
Can't hardly is improper English. That said--this reminds me of our discussion on could vs. couldn't care less.


I can hardly care less. wink

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Pooh-Bah
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oh...I dont believe that Tss

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Originally Posted By: Faldage
I could never see that hardly was a negative. When you say "I can hardly ..." you're saying that you can but it is with extreme difficulty. If you look at "I can't hardly ..." logically, then it would seem to mean that you can do it easily but, that's assuming that language acts logically, an extremely iffy proposition.


That's right. MWDEU gives a good demonstration of why "can't hardly" is not a double negative:
Originally Posted By: Merriam Webster's Dictionary of English Usage
Quote:
I got up and tried to untie her, but I was so excited my hands shook so I couldn't hardly do anything with them - Mark Twain, Huckleberry Finn, 1884

Huck is saying in this passage that his hands were shaking so much that he had considerable trouble in untying her, but he did untie her. Now let's make a true double negative out of it.
Quote:
My hands shook so much I couldn't do nothing with them.

If Mark Twain had had Huck say that, the female in question would still be tied up.


Last edited by goofy; 05/07/11 02:49 AM.
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I see it as nearly a double negative. "It's so dark in here that I can hardly see you" means I can nearly not see you. "…I can't hardly see you" then means I am unable to nearly not see you, which to me says I can see you pretty clearly. Not technically a double negative, but close enough that a reversal of meaning can be inferred without much difficulty.

On the other hand, there is no doubt of Huck's meaning, and the usage, however informal, is very common, at least in American English. And it seems to me that in Middle English, and early Modern English, double negative could be used for emphasis of negativity, rather than reversal. Maybe this is a remnant or throwback. Though I never use this construction other than facetiously, I have no problem understanding its meaning.

My hands shook so much I couldn't do nothing with them says "was unable to do nothing," "compelled to do something." No, she would be untied.

Now, "couldn't hardly do nothing…"

Peter

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