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Joined: Jun 2002
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way back on Tuesday from our esteemed jheem:

Orient is from the present participle oriens 'rising' from the deponent verb orior, the past particple of which is ortus. So, the verb should be ort and the noun should be ortion.





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Faldage Offline OP
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According to the COED the earliest noun citation antedates the first verb citing.


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Yes, but what I am trying to say is, that etymology works for the noun. Why should the east figure in a word that means align/guide

eta, thanks!
EDIT:
Just caught orientatinizing; IMO, a close contender!


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Faldage Offline OP
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Its earliest definition is 'to arrange so as to face east' or summat like that.


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It makes sense that orient would come into English as a noun, and then later be turned into a verb (first with zero-suffixation and then with the anomolous -ate ending). This reminds me of a whole slew (not slough) of French verbs that were borrowed into German that end with -ieren from Fr -ir and German -en: double infinitival endings.


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Aah! Thanks Faldage!


#123765 02/27/04 07:38 PM
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Capf', my (knee-jerk) reaction was due to "If latin is already 'efflucted'", (which rather differs from "If Latin has efflucted in time"), not to your previous; if you follow.


#123766 02/27/04 08:26 PM
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A likely story ...


#123767 02/28/04 06:35 PM
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a living language violating a dead one

Latin isn't dead. It's just buried in modern english.


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