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#116810 - 11/28/03 08:08 PM A direct question  
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Jackie Offline
Jackie  Offline

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Dody's thread over in I&A got me to thinking about this. For governments that have established empires, why don't we say they're empirical?


#116811 - 11/28/03 10:05 PM Re: A direct question  
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Faldage Offline
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Because they have different roots. Empire is from the Latin imperare, to rule; empirical is through Latin from the Greek empeirikos, experienced.


#116812 - 11/29/03 02:42 AM Re: A direct question  
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Jackie Offline
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Thank you, Mr. F. I had a feeling it would be something like that. Although I am too familiar with the "real" meaning of empirical to be able to seriously ascribe it as I said above, it still makes grammatical "sense" to me; I guess in the same way that toddlers say, "I tooked a piece of candy".


#116813 - 11/29/03 04:49 AM Re: A direct question  
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Capfka Offline
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You could say, I suppose and at the risk of being laughed at, that the government was empireical.



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