Wordsmith.org
Posted By: Jackie A direct question - 11/28/03 08:08 PM
Dody's thread over in I&A got me to thinking about this. For governments that have established empires, why don't we say they're empirical?

Posted By: Faldage Re: A direct question - 11/28/03 10:05 PM
Because they have different roots. Empire is from the Latin imperare, to rule; empirical is through Latin from the Greek empeirikos, experienced.

Posted By: Jackie Re: A direct question - 11/29/03 02:42 AM
Thank you, Mr. F. I had a feeling it would be something like that. Although I am too familiar with the "real" meaning of empirical to be able to seriously ascribe it as I said above, it still makes grammatical "sense" to me; I guess in the same way that toddlers say, "I tooked a piece of candy".

Posted By: Capfka Re: A direct question - 11/29/03 04:49 AM
You could say, I suppose and at the risk of being laughed at, that the government was empireical.

© Wordsmith.org