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#165743 02/07/07 01:35 AM
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Jeez!! Would you guys just eschew the obfuscation already?!

#165744 02/08/07 07:06 PM
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Quote:

yeahbut, one pn's type-3 is another's type-2.




Perhaps so. Nonetheless I'm sure you'd find much consistency among those similarly-inclined. Hence it might prove interesting if someone were to conduct a poll testing my assertion


dalehileman
#165745 02/08/07 09:24 PM
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yeahbut, one pn's type-3 is another's type-2.




And someones type-2 may be anothers type-3. If type 3's are not in someones vernacular does the classification still apply?

#165746 02/08/07 10:35 PM
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Sure it does, why not


dalehileman
#165747 02/08/07 11:52 PM
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Sure it does, why not




Sorry, Maybe I don't understand the meaning of type-2, type-3. Is it to do with frequency? Some of the words used in everyday speech are not in common usage to some people on a regular basis. So to them the words could conceivably be classed as type-3. And vice versa, does a type 2 of yours or someone with a higher vocab become a type 3 for someone else. What is the distinction? In Cook Island Maori there are only words. No hard or easy words, just words.

#165748 02/09/07 12:53 AM
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Perhaps a society rather than a coalition?
RSPCW: Radical Society for the Protection and Collection of Words.

It's impossible to definitively typecast (most of them can be typed, obviously - that's how they showed up on the screen) words since frequency, familiarity and spellability are dependany on the user, hearer and speller.
I might say in ward rounds that "knee flexion is a contra-indication" but to my patient I will say "don't bend your knee." Each is a perfectly usable, understandable phrase in it's own environment.

#165749 02/09/07 02:23 AM
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I might say in ward rounds that "knee flexion is a contra-indication" but to my patient I will say "don't bend your knee." Each is a perfectly usable, understandable phrase in it's own environment.




Why "knee flexion is a contra-indication" rather than "is contra-indicated"? I'm asking from a position of the utmost ignorance, motivated by genuine curiosity.

#165750 02/09/07 11:10 AM
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Quote:


I might say in ward rounds that "knee flexion is a contra-indication"




Why "knee flexion is a contra-indication" rather than "is contra-indicated"? I'm asking from a position of the utmost ignorance, motivated by genuine curiosity.




Good question. I would think that "knee flexion is a contra-indication" would mean that if the patient bends a knee it would mean that there's something else that would be contra-indicated.

#165751 02/09/07 04:46 PM
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Sure it does, why not




Sorry, Maybe I don't understand the meaning of type-2, type-3.

***2: them most folk understand but don't use much, eg, guffaw
3: Snooty words not used much in everyday conversation, eg, cachinnation

Is it to do with frequency?

***Only indirectly

... And vice versa, does a type 2 of yours or someone with a higher vocab become a type 3 for someone else. What is the distinction?...

***There isn't one. You're asking for a prescriptivist answer to a descriptivist question. But thank you for participating and again hearty welcome


dalehileman
#165752 02/09/07 05:06 PM
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Olly, Dale has his own language, I think it's called Dalespeak. These distinctions are his and his alone. I'm not surprised you don't know them.

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