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#122811 02/15/04 01:42 AM
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You're welcome. Ain't language wunnerful?


#122812 02/17/04 06:33 PM
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It seems that the sound change came first and then the grammatical reanalysis. This is a process called grammaticalization

Jheem, doesn't grammaticalisation refer to only a change in the *meaning of a word, specifically when, it transforms in from something concrete and tangible to one with mere grammatical connotations? I am trying to think of an example, but am struggling with one.
I imagined that the word doesn't morph in either spelling or pronunciation, its meaning however undergoes a specific change.


#122813 02/18/04 04:10 AM
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<i>doesn't grammaticalisation refer to only a change in the *meaning of a word, specifically when, it transforms in from something concrete and tangible to one with mere grammatical connotations? I am trying to think of an example, but am struggling with one.</i>

But that's kinda what I meant. The ablaut went from being a purely phonological phenomenon (that happened in other environments) to being one that was reanalyzed as being morphological. Some weak verbs in English have been reanalyzed as strong ones of the ablaut-series. This is slightly different from your definition, because it doesn't have to be words, but can be morphemes.

<i>I imagined that the word doesn't morph in either spelling or pronunciation, its meaning however undergoes a specific change.</i>

Not necessarily. One classic example of grammaticalization is howe the modern Greek future morpheme, <i>tha</i> developed out of <i>thelo ina</i> 'I wish that'.


#122814 02/18/04 04:11 AM
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Maahey, would an example of what you're thinking of be the combination of 'by' and 'cause' into the conjunction because?

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#122815 02/19/04 06:32 PM
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Thanks Jheem. Bingley, I am rather uncertain of this, since I read it all a good while ago, but, the example that keeps coming back to mind is, 'has'. The spelling/ pronunciation is unaltered, but the word itself has gone from meaning, possession of something to, a verb qualifier in the past tense.

Bingley has the book.
Bingley has scored a goal.


#122816 02/19/04 06:37 PM
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Whilst re-reading my earlier post, 'since' caught my eye. Is this also a case of grammaticalization? (at least as I have understood it)

Liz was married last year; she has since changed her name
Harry keeps forgetting the details, since it all happened so long ago.

Which usage came first?


#122817 02/20/04 02:50 AM
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I think that since as because is later in meaning. Or did you mean one is an adverb and the other a conjunction? I'll see if I can round up a couple of good examples. (There's a good book by CUP on Grammaticalization.)


#122818 02/20/04 04:31 AM
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I categorically deny that Bingley has ever scored a goal in his life.

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